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Question: How can Leviticus 5:17, and John 9:21 co-exist? They “co-exist” as you call it, because they are from the same source! That is not the question. What I think you mean, is do they conflict? They don’t conflict because John’s statement is a continuum of Leviticus! Both are dealing with the question/fact of sin, known and unknown! Both are directed at the same people, the Jews! Jesus was at pains to say who He was talking to, “I come only to the lost sheep of Israel,” (at that time, Matt. 15:24)! Because Israel had not kept their vows to God, see Deuteronomy and God’s statements, and Malachi’s summary, John the Baptist, Jesus and later the Apostle Paul worked hard on them to repent and see the Truth of God’s messages to them in the Old Testament. They still did not see, and by Acts 28:25–28, Paul issued the prophecy of Isa. 6:9–10, which put the Jews into the “Lo-Ammi” (not My people) condition before God, (temporarily). Had the Jews seen what was meant by Jesus etc., they would have repented, and been forgiven all their sins and sinning, as it is now, they have a “vail” over their understanding, which will remain until the events of Zech.12:10! The beneficiaries of their neglect are the Gentiles of the world, because the prophecy of Acts 28:28 states that “the Gentiles will hear and be saved”! See: Acts 4:12 and Acts 28:25-28 If you have questions or comments, please click here. Subjectindex or |